Fellow Peaters
I've had persistent diffuse shedding for the past 3-4 years now (aged 26) & have recently began adopting some PEAT protocols/diet.
A dermatologist diagnosed me with Telogen Effluvium around 2015 - which is diffuse hair loss usually resulting from stress, which generally fixes itself after a few months. Though it can be chronic, as mine appears to be. It's also the common diagnosis for women suffering hair loss.
The diagnosis is partly made by doing a "hair pull test" and observing that hairs pulled out still have the 'white bulbs' at the end.
Right now I'm still experiencing almost daily shedding, though there are definite flucutations. Despite this, I have ZERO reduction in hairline and still seem to be growing new hairs, if only at a slower rate than I am loosing them.
I'd LOVE any perpesctive on this from those of you better versed than I in this topic:
Does the bulbous end of hairs (or lack of) indicate a difference in the cause of hair loss?
Is Telogen Effluvium even thought of as a seperate condition amongst the community?
Why is it that a receding hairline wouldnt occur, and instead hair loss is diffuse?
Big thanks to anyone who can provide inight, I hope this starts an interesting conversation that perhaps hasnt been covered much thus far.
I've had persistent diffuse shedding for the past 3-4 years now (aged 26) & have recently began adopting some PEAT protocols/diet.
A dermatologist diagnosed me with Telogen Effluvium around 2015 - which is diffuse hair loss usually resulting from stress, which generally fixes itself after a few months. Though it can be chronic, as mine appears to be. It's also the common diagnosis for women suffering hair loss.
The diagnosis is partly made by doing a "hair pull test" and observing that hairs pulled out still have the 'white bulbs' at the end.
Right now I'm still experiencing almost daily shedding, though there are definite flucutations. Despite this, I have ZERO reduction in hairline and still seem to be growing new hairs, if only at a slower rate than I am loosing them.
I'd LOVE any perpesctive on this from those of you better versed than I in this topic:
Does the bulbous end of hairs (or lack of) indicate a difference in the cause of hair loss?
Is Telogen Effluvium even thought of as a seperate condition amongst the community?
Why is it that a receding hairline wouldnt occur, and instead hair loss is diffuse?
Big thanks to anyone who can provide inight, I hope this starts an interesting conversation that perhaps hasnt been covered much thus far.
