Does anyone know why Ray would recommend topical DHEA (I assumed on the scalp) for combating hair loss? Other than it’s said to be a youth hormone of sorts.
I am wondering if anyone can speak to the mechanics behind why it might be useful.
To be honest, I am a little confused as DHEA is known for increasing DHT, which doesn’t seem to have a favourable relationship with the balding scalp – or at least the conventional thinking has been that the later conversion of it downstream into PGD2 is said to maybe affect inflammation, etc. and is a big contributor in some way.
I am also quite confused about the estrogenic conversion of DHEA that I have been reading about on threads.
From what I have been able to glean, adding too much DHEA results in estrogenic effects, but also adding DHEA into an already estrogenic environment may make things worse? This part confuses me a bit. Or am I misunderstanding?
I’m not sure if a balding scalp would be consistent with a more estrogenic state or an androgenic state at this point. Though it seems some Peatarians believe that an estrogen dominance of the body, if not the scalp itself (if that's even possible), is a factor in hair loss.
Nonetheless, this recommendation seems counter-intuitive, and I am wondering if anyone might have a guess at the reasoning behind it.
Thanks.
I am wondering if anyone can speak to the mechanics behind why it might be useful.
To be honest, I am a little confused as DHEA is known for increasing DHT, which doesn’t seem to have a favourable relationship with the balding scalp – or at least the conventional thinking has been that the later conversion of it downstream into PGD2 is said to maybe affect inflammation, etc. and is a big contributor in some way.
I am also quite confused about the estrogenic conversion of DHEA that I have been reading about on threads.
From what I have been able to glean, adding too much DHEA results in estrogenic effects, but also adding DHEA into an already estrogenic environment may make things worse? This part confuses me a bit. Or am I misunderstanding?
I’m not sure if a balding scalp would be consistent with a more estrogenic state or an androgenic state at this point. Though it seems some Peatarians believe that an estrogen dominance of the body, if not the scalp itself (if that's even possible), is a factor in hair loss.
Nonetheless, this recommendation seems counter-intuitive, and I am wondering if anyone might have a guess at the reasoning behind it.
Thanks.