COVID-19 vaccine(s) makes people test positive on an HIV test

Steve

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Well this should convince at least a few of the sheeple to get off the vaccine bandwagon.
HIV-AIDS will get their attention!

Thanks for posting!
 
T

TheBeard

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How can it contain HIV "fragments" when HIV exists just as much as Covid, meaning it doesn't.
The only thing that exists is AIDS, a host of symptoms that develop in someone snorting too much poppers, injecting heroin, or just having a very poor lifestyle, and may exhibit conditions such as Kaposi syndrom as a result.

The other thing that exists are respiratory symptoms. Sure. But they also develop because of a poor lifestyle, not because of "covid".

Neither HIV nor covid were proven to exist under a microscope.
 
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haidut

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How can it contain HIV "fragments" when HIV exists just as much as Covid, meaning it doesn't.
The only thing that exists is AIDS, a host of symptoms that develop in someone snorting too much poppers, injecting heroin, or just having a very poor lifestyle, and may exhibit conditions such as Kaposi syndrom as a result.

The other thing that exists are respiratory symptoms. Sure. But they also develop because of a poor lifestyle, not because of "covid".

Neither HIV nor covid were proven to exist under a microscope.

I think the main concern is that the vaccine contains something (whatever that something may be) that activates the retrovirome, and that is most certainly not a good sign. Whether we call that effect being "HIV-positive" or having AIDS is secondary to the fact that this specific vaccine is not safe. FDA needs to come forward and inform the public on how many of the already approved COVID-19 vaccines contain such retrovirus-activating elements.
"...Focus on the induction of antibodies by vaccines to define immunity has led to a dangerous disregard for the basic facts of health. The present testing of a vaccine containing the RNA that specifies the most destructive spike protein of the corona virus, the part that inactivates our protective ACE2 enzyme, is being done in a culture that avoids consideration of the meaning of our massive endogenous system of RNA-responsive reverse transcriptases and retroelements. The consequences of incorporating the spike protein of the virus into our genetic repertoire are hard to imagine. The mindless activation of our huge epigenetic system of retroelements, with no knowable benefits, should be stopped."
 

Perry Staltic

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...too much poppers, injecting heroin, or just having a very poor lifestyle, and may exhibit conditions such as Kaposi syndrom as a result.

The interesting thing about Kaposi's Sarcoma (a type of skin cancer) during the early days was that only those who abused poppers got KS. No other AIDS patients did. No pathogen acts like that. Poppers (amyl nitrite) are carcinogenic, and gays back then used to abuse the hell out of them.
 

Kray

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This seems very strange considering Fauci's work with HIV/AIDS for years now, as well as Deborah Birx's.
 

boris

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The interesting thing about Kaposi's Sarcoma (a type of skin cancer) during the early days was that only those who abused poppers got KS. No other AIDS patients did. No pathogen acts like that. Poppers (amyl nitrite) are carcinogenic, and gays back then used to abuse the hell out of them.

It‘s still very popular

 
T

TheBeard

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The interesting thing about Kaposi's Sarcoma (a type of skin cancer) during the early days was that only those who abused poppers got KS. No other AIDS patients did. No pathogen acts like that. Poppers (amyl nitrite) are carcinogenic, and gays back then used to abuse the hell out of them.

There is not one way to have AIDS. It litterally just means your immune system is deficient.
This deficiency can occupy a full spectrum.
 

ljihkugft7

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As many of the readers here remember, Peat mentioned in several interviews that one of the concerns he had with the various mRNA vaccines developed for COVID-19 was that most of them contain a protein fragment from HIV. He stated that the introduction of such retroviral species in the organism in the form of a vaccine is at best a very risky gamble and at worst may actually trigger the development of a catastrophic immune failure akin to AIDS, while also incorporating the SARS-CoV-2 protein into our genome. I saw several immunology "experts" discuss the public's concern about this issue (which was raised by various other doctors) and all of them dismissed such worries as irrational and completely unfounded.

"...Focus on the induction of antibodies by vaccines to define immunity has led to a dangerous disregard for the basic facts of health. The present testing of a vaccine containing the RNA that specifies the most destructive spike protein of the corona virus, the part that inactivates our protective ACE2 enzyme, is being done in a culture that avoids consideration of the meaning of our massive endogenous system of RNA-responsive reverse transcriptases and retroelements. The consequences of incorporating the spike protein of the virus into our genetic repertoire are hard to imagine. The mindless activation of our huge epigenetic system of retroelements, with no knowable benefits, should be stopped."

Well, as it seems, fate is not without a sense of irony. Apparently, Australia just halted the development of its own COVID-19 vaccines after several of the participants started producing antibodies for HIV. The most shocking part of this fiasco is that apparently the vaccine manufacturers knew about the possibility of the vaccine triggering HIV antiibody production. They simply did not anticipate that the level of HIV antibody production would be high enough to trigger a positive HIV test!! I also marvel at the linguistic acrobatics used to convey this news. Instead of saying the vaccine triggered a positive HIV test, they say that the vaccine "interfered" with an HIV test. To the average person on the street that may even sound like the vaccine has some sort of protective effect against HIV, instead of actually causing it. If such outcome is perfectly fine and there is nothing to worry about then why halt the trial and permanently abandon further development of this vaccine?? Considering that this HIV fragment is in all COVID-19 mRNA vaccines currently on the market, why wasn't HIV testing done during the other (Pfizer, Moderna, etc) trials as well??
Anyways, apparently it is known to vaccine vendors that (at least this) COVID-19 vaccines may cause HIV to develop. They just did not expect that this (un)desired "side" effect will be robust enough to be discovered during the vaccine trial and as such to be directly linked to the vaccine. I bet they hoped that HIV will manifest months/years after the vaccine has been administered so they can claim there is no association. Now, knowing that most other vaccines on the market (for any disease, not just COVID-19) contain fragments of the (in)famous carcinogenic SV40 virus that is also known to cause fatal neurodegenerative disease, I think it becomes a little bit clearer just how "safe" most of the vaccines being pushed on the unsuspecting public are.

Against the background of such exceptional "safety" of most vaccines, the recent news that some states (such as DC) passed emergency laws (under the guise of COVID-19) laws allowing secret manipulation, consent and vaccination of children reads like it came from a horror novel.

I am starting to wonder what else is in those vaccines that we don't even know about, as many of the ingredients are not even required to be disclosed if the amount present in a vaccine is below a certain FDA-specified level, and/or is protected by trade secrets. FDA does get to see everything that is in a vaccine (or at least can demand to see it, subject to vendor's compliance, of course), but FDA is not required to disclose to the public ALL ingredients present in a typical vial containing the vaccine. And perhaps worst of all, the discoverer of HIV himself (Luc Montagnier) warned as early as March 2020 that SARS-CoV-2 contained HIV fragments that are highly unlikely to be of natural origin, and also that any COVID-19 vaccine based on mRNA will have a risk of triggering HIV/AIDS. He is, by definition, the expert on HIV but this time instead of telling us to "listen to the experts" mainstream media either did not even mention his statements or immediately labelled him as insane, disturbed, etc.

@Drareg @Regina @tankasnowgod @boris @Giraffe

"...The Phase 1 data also showed the generation of antibodies directed towards fragments of a protein (gp41), which is a component used to stablise the vaccine. Trial participants were fully informed of the possibility of a partial immune response to this component, but it was unexpected that the levels induced would interfere with certain HIV tests."

"...The backers of Australia’s homegrown COVID-19 vaccine candidate, earlier this week, announced a halt to its further development, after some of the first people to receive the vaccine in a safety trial generated antibodies to an unintended target, the AIDS virus. A small fragment of an HIV protein is a component of the vaccine used to add stability to the intended antibody target, the spike protein of the pandemic coronavirus SARS-CoV-2, Science Mag reported. Unfortunately, that HIV fragment also generated antibodies that could confuse diagnostic tests. Researchers recognized the possibility that the HIV component might invoke an immune response. But, “It was unexpected that the levels induced would interfere with certain HIV tests,” reads a joint statement announcing the halt of the candidate’s development that was posted online by UQ and CSL- Science Mag reported."

"...Interestingly enough, earlier in the year, at the height of the pandemic and COVID hysteria, Professor Luc Montagnier, winner of the Nobel Prize for Medicine in 2008 for “discovering” HIV as the cause of the AIDS epidemic, claimed on French media that COVID 19 was created in Wuhan lab, while scientists were experimenting on an HIV vaccination."
Thoughts?
 

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boris

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FDA needs to come forward and inform the public on how many of the already approved COVID-19 vaccines contain such retrovirus-activating elements.

Hopefully this will make more people realize how insane it is that the companies don‘t have to disclose the full makeup of something they want to inject the whole world with.

Getting injected with HIV particles should sound pretty crazy to anyone with half a head on their shoulders, but then again, people convinced themselves that getting injected with mercury is absolutely safe.
 
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boris

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Thoughts?
The gene sequence that is being used to detect „Sars-Cov2“ is probably very common in endogenous stress induced retroelements, that‘s why the positive tests are skyrocketing while showing very little correlation to actual so called „COVID-19“ sickness and deaths.

Same as HIV, see the Kerry Mullis interview earlier in the thread (inventor of the detection method PCR).
 

hei

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How did the vaccine trigger a positive HIV test?
There's no indication that it triggered a positive HIV test, it says they tested positive for antibodies against the gp41 protein from HIV, the most likely explanation being because that's what they were injected with:

"The Molecular Clamp is a trimerization motif of 80aa in length (~9.2 kDa) derived from N- and C-terminal heptad repeat (HR) regions of HIV-1 gp41 which self-assemble into a stable six-helical bundle structure that is critical for driving membrane fusion and cell entry of HIV-1 (7) ( Figure 1 )." (the NCBI article)

"The Phase 1 data also showed the generation of antibodies directed towards fragments of a protein (gp41), which is a component used to stablise the vaccine". (the UQ link)


One antibody is not sufficient for a positive HIV test:
"Several HIV antigens are included in the test. The test is interpreted as positive if antibody to at least two of three antigens is detected (p24, gp41 or gp120/160). When no bands are found the test is negative. When some bands appear but do not meet the criteria for a positive result the result is considered indeterminate."
I see. So, in order for this vaccine to be accepted by the public, we will have to basically re-define our protocols of how we determine who is HIV positive. I wonder why...So, look, we can't have it both ways. Either the current tests for HIV stand and the people who got the vaccine meet the criteria for HIV-positive, or the tests are invalid, in which case this will open an even bigger can of worms of what exactly are those tests measuring/diagnosing in the millions of HIV-positive people around the world. See @tankasnowgod post above voicing exactly these concerns.
Where is the suggestion that they expect or want it to be accepted by the public? They cancelled the vaccine because of this and the project this was part of has been sent back to the drawing board to look for something else to use. As for the tests, has there previously been widespread finding of HIV antibodies in people who had never been infected with HIV? If not then how would it not be a new situation if a large number of people were given this vaccine and developed an (1) HIV antibody?
Along those lines - you cannot determine with a single test if those people who got the vaccine now have a chronic infection. So, the excuse "routine follow up tests confirmed there is no HIV virus present" they provided does not fly. Those people need to be followed up for at least 3 months before claims can be made that they are not chronically HIV-positive. As far as I can see from the article, the people who tested HIV-positive had a follow up test just a few days later. Also, what are those "routine follow up tests" that determined no HIV was present? PCR maybe? If yes, then this is not following the standard diagnostic criteria for HIV-positivity. Once a person tests HIV-positive then the only test that should be done (by law) is the same test for HIV antibodies, and it should be done 2-3 months after the first positive test. If even ONE of the follow up tests is positive again then the official definition is that these people have chronic HIV. If you test HIV positive, your doctor will not send you for a PCR test. He/she will ask you to come back in a few weeks/months and do another test for antibodies. Why is the trial allowed to skirt the official procedure for determining if somebody is HIV-positive??
Pretty funny that the evil medical establishment says they're fine and healthy while you insist they now have a chronic HIV infection. Next you'll be saying they have to be put on HIV medications just to keep up with some protocol or other.
 

b555

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How can it contain HIV "fragments" when HIV exists just as much as Covid, meaning it doesn't.
The only thing that exists is AIDS, a host of symptoms that develop in someone snorting too much poppers, injecting heroin, or just having a very poor lifestyle, and may exhibit conditions such as Kaposi syndrom as a result.

The other thing that exists are respiratory symptoms. Sure. But they also develop because of a poor lifestyle, not because of "covid".

Neither HIV nor covid were proven to exist under a microscope.

?



 

boris

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?




That‘s not how any of this works.

Missing 3 out of 4 steps:
Koch%E2%80%99s-postulates-and-its-limitations.jpg


This is the study link 3 is referencing:
"Although our study does not fulfill Koch's postulates....
....
"We isolated infectious virus using Vero E6 cell culture from the lung, and observed SARS-CoV-2 particles using electron microscopy (Fig. 1d). However, the virus was not isolated from the lungs of HB-01-infected wild-type mice or mock-treated hACE2 mice along the detecting timeline
 

b555

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That‘s not how any of this works.

Missing 3 out of 4 steps:
Koch%E2%80%99s-postulates-and-its-limitations.jpg


This is the study link 3 is referencing:
"Although our study does not fulfill Koch's postulates....
....
"We isolated infectious virus using Vero E6 cell culture from the lung, and observed SARS-CoV-2 particles using electron microscopy (Fig. 1d). However, the virus was not isolated from the lungs of HB-01-infected wild-type mice or mock-treated hACE2 mice along the detecting timeline
The virus has been isolated, sequenced, and extensively studied including how it infects cells
 

b555

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That‘s not how any of this works.

Missing 3 out of 4 steps:
Koch%E2%80%99s-postulates-and-its-limitations.jpg


This is the study link 3 is referencing:
"Although our study does not fulfill Koch's postulates....
....
"We isolated infectious virus using Vero E6 cell culture from the lung, and observed SARS-CoV-2 particles using electron microscopy (Fig. 1d). However, the virus was not isolated from the lungs of HB-01-infected wild-type mice or mock-treated hACE2 mice along the detecting timeline


Wow, a germ theory denier! I still find it absolutely stunning that germ theory deniers (and flat earthers, for that matter) can exist now with all humankind's information so readily available. And if by chance you aren't a germ theory denier and just regurgitated this bit of stupidity that you saw on Facebook or greenmedinfo or Infowars or whatever your idiotic choice of idiotic information is without bothering to learn anything about it whatsoever, then the only other possibility for you making this stupid argument is that you 1) don't have a ******* clue what Koch's postulates are, 2) don't realise that Koch conceptualised this in 1884, 3) don't know that Koch was talking only of cholera and tuberculosis, 4) don't know that Koch's postulates don't (and never did) apply to viruses, and 5) don't know that Koch's postulates have essentially been replaced by the Bradford Hill criteria (which themselves have become obsolete since they were published in 1965 - yeah, that's how science works).

Koch's postulates are supposed to establish a causal relationship between a microbe and the disease it causes: 1) The microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease, but should not be found in healthy organisms.
2) The microorganism must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture.
3) The cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced into a healthy organism.
4) The microorganism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased experimental host and identified as being identical to the original specific causative agent.

Three years after they were published, Koch himself admitted that the first postulate isn't necessary when he discovered the existence of asymptomatic carriers of typhoid fever. This idea has also been completely abandoned by modern medicine because there are many other diseases (HIV, polio, colds, flu, etc) which have asymptomatic carriers. So that should throw this idea right out the window.”

But viruses don't satisfy them either, because they can't be grown in culture. Viruses have to be grown on the type of cells they infect, and viruses were not known to exist in 1890 when these were first written. Furthermore, Koch also realised that not everyone who is exposed to a microorganism becomnes infected, which is why the third postulate says "should" rather than "must".

This is all just a long-winded way of saying that viruses don't satisfy Koch's postulates because Koch's postulates were not intended for viruses, so your argument is moot.

Viruses have been isolated from the diseases they cause. That is irrefutable.
 

boris

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The virus has been isolated, sequenced, and extensively studied including how it infects cells

Yes, I have read your links, you don‘t have to post them again. Koch hin oder her, they are pure nonsense since they all reference studies claiming that it is a novel virus first emerged from a wet market in Wuhan China in December of 2019. That‘s old news.




Apart from that, nothing about this virus or the disease it causes is novel in any way. By the logic they are following any new mutation is a novel virus.

Koch's postulates have essentially been replaced by the Bradford Hill criteria (which themselves have become obsolete since they were published in 1965 - yeah, that's how science works).

Yeah, that’s how science works unfortunately. COVID doesn‘t satisfy any serious criteria for determining a causal relationship.
 
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